Information Collection Request (ICR) Tracker

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The Federal Energy Regulatory Commission (FERC or Commission) requests that the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) review and renew the information collection requirements in FERC-725K under OMB Control No. 1902-0260. The 725K collection was modified by the Commission order in Docket No. RD22-1-000. The modification to FERC 725K is due to the dissolution of the Florida Reliability Coordinating Council (FRCC) into the SERC region. FERC 725K was modified by RD22-1-000 by updating the SERC regional requirements to be compatible with the reliability requirements of the Florida Peninsula as well as incorporating additional entities required to comply with the collection.

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This ICR package is a renewal of an existing collection, Recordkeeping and Reporting for the Renewable Fuel Standard Program, OMB Control Number 2060-0725, expiring August 31, 2022. The RFS regulations are in 40 CFR part 80, subpart M. Because it is more efficient and easier for regulated parties to understand, we seek to consolidate the following approved ICRs into this collection: Modifications to Fuel Regulations to Provide Flexibility for E15; Modifications to RFS RIN Market Regulations (Final Rule), OMB Control Number 2060-0723, expiring November 30, 2022; and Renewable Fuel Standard Program: Standards for 2020 and Biomass-Based Diesel Volume for 2021, Response to the Remand of the 2016 Standards, and Other Changes (Final Rule), OMB Control Number 2060-0728, expiring December 31, 2023. The RFS program was created under the Energy Policy Act of 2005 (EPAct), which amended the Clean Air Act (CAA). The Energy Independence and Security Act of 2007 (EISA) further amended the CAA by expanding the RFS program. The RFS program is a national policy that requires a certain volume of renewable fuel to replace or reduce the quantity of petroleum-based transportation fuel, heating oil or jet fuel. The reporting requirements of the RFS program typically fall under registration and compliance reporting. Recordkeeping requirements include product transfer documents (PTDs) and retention of records that support items reported. Because RFS relies upon a marketplace of RINs, EPA has created and maintains the EPA Moderated Transaction System (EMTS) capable of handling a high volume of RIN trading activities. The respondents to this ICR are RIN Generators (producers and importers of renewable fuel), Obligated Parties (refiners and importers of gasoline and diesel), Exporters, RIN Owners, independent third-party Quality Assurance Plan (QAP) Providers, Third Parties (Auditors who submit reports on behalf of other respondents), and certain petitioners under the international aggregate compliance approach (such petitions are infrequent).

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The Indian Gaming Regulatory Act directs the National Indian Gaming Commission to monitor class II gaming conducted on Indian lands on a continuing basis in order to ensure that the Indian tribe is the primary beneficiary of the gaming operation and to protect such gaming as a means of generating tribal revenue, and to assure that gaming is conducted fairly and honestly by both the operator and players. The Commission has established minimum internal control standards to aid it in monitoring class II gaming on a continuing basis.

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This ICR collects information from persons who wish to be accredited by the Agency to review certain premarket notifications. Participation in this third-party review program by accredited persons is entirely voluntary. A third party wishing to participate will submit a request for accreditation to FDA. Accredited third-party reviewers have the ability to review a manufacturer's premarket notification for selected medical devices. After reviewing a submission, the reviewer will forward a copy of the submission, along with the reviewer's documented review and recommendation to FDA. Third-party reviewers also maintain records of their reviews and a copy of the submission. The purpose of the program is: (1) to provide manufacturers of eligible devices with an alternative review process that could yield more rapid marketing clearance decisions and (2) enable FDA to target its scientific review resources at higher-risk devices while maintaining confidence in the review by third parties of low-to-moderate risk devices.

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Rule 12d1-3 requires a certification that a security has been approved by an exchange for listing and registration pursuant to Section 12(d) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 to be filed with the Commission.

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This information collection is mandatory when a person offers a hazardous material with a subsidiary hazard into transportation and shipping papers are required. This is a reporting requirement on occasion when the hazardous materials with subsidiary classes are offered into transportation. Shipping papers identify the presence of hazardous materials that are being transported and assist carrier personnel and emergency responders in knowing the proper safety procedures and incident mitigation should an incident occur in transportation. The indication of a subsidiary hazard class further assists by reducing: (1) the need to sort through multiple entries on shipping papers to determine what hazardous materials are in a transport vehicle; and (2) delays in making proper determinations concerning the mitigation of an accident. Following review of this information collection, PHMSA has revised this burden based on more accurate stakeholder feedback.

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The DEA collects information in regards to reporting and recordkeeping for digital certificates. The application for a digital certificate is required to ensure that the person applying for the certificate is either a DEA registrant or someone who has power of attorney from a DEA registrant to sign orders for Schedule I and II substances. The DEA Certification Authority uses the information to verify the person’s identity and eligibility to hold a DEA-issued digital certificate.

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The Drug Enforcement Administration collects information regarding mail order transactions conducted between a person regulated by the agency and a nonregulated person (that is, someone who does not further distribute the product) involving the chemicals ephedrine, pseudoephedrine, and phenylpropanolamine. Transactions must use, or attempt to use, the United States Postal Service or any private or commercial carrier. This collection of information is mandated by 21 U.S.C. 830(b)(3), and permits the agency to monitor the distribution of ephedrine, pseudoephedrine and phenylpropanolamine, chemicals which are subject to diversion for the illicit manufacture of methamphetamine.

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Form 18-K is used as an annual report for foreign governments and political subdivisions with securities listed on a United States exchange.

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Section 274B of the INA prohibits: employment discrimination on the basis of citizenship status or national origin; retaliation or intimidation by an employer against an individual seeking to exercise his or her rights under this section; and "document abuse" or overdocumentation by the employer, which occurs when the employer asks an applicant or employee for more or different documents than required for employment eligibility verification under INA section 274A, with the intent of discriminating against the employee in violation of section 274B.

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Banks and insurance companies may establish prototype individual retirement arrangement account trusts or annuity contracts. Employers may establish individual retirement account trusts for the use of their employees. To ensure that these trusts or annuity contracts meet the requirements under Internal Revenue Code (IRC) section 408(a), 408(b), or 408(c), these persons may request an approval letter from Internal Revenue Service (IRS). Sponsoring organizations, employers, or employee associations, use Form 5306 to request a ruling. The data supplied on Form 5306 is used to determine if the individual retirement account trust or annuity contract meets the requirements of section code 408, so the Internal Revenue Service may issue an approval letter.

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The “Amendments to Parts 192 and 195 to Require Valve Installation and Minimum Rupture Detection Standards Final Rule” require operators of natural gas and hazardous liquid pipelines to document certain procedures and to maintain records pertaining to various aspects of their rupture-mitigation valve operations. Operators who have experienced a rupture or rupture-mitigation valve shut-off are required to complete a post-incident review. The post-incident summary, all investigation and analysis documents used to prepare it, and records of lessons learned must be kept for the life of the pipeline. PHMSA estimates that it will take operators, on average, 40 hours to comply with this requirement. Operators must also develop written rupture identification procedures to evaluate and identify whether a notification of potential rupture is an actual rupture event or non-rupture event as soon as practicable. These procedures must, at a minimum, specify the sources of information, operational factors, and other criteria that operator personnel use to evaluate a notification of potential rupture. PHMSA estimates that it will take operators 40 hours comply with this requirement. Operators are also required to maintain certain records if they experience certain circumstances involving their rupture-mitigation valve operations. On average, PHMSA expects that it will take operators 8 hours to complete these recordkeeping requirements. PHMSA estimates that 1,812 operators (1,304 natural gas and 508 hazardous liquid) operators will be potentially impacted by these requirements. At minimum, all 1,812 operators will be required to develop written rupture identification procedures. PHMSA estimates 46 (24 gas and 22 hazardous liquid) of these operators will experience a rupture that will require the completion of a post-incident summary. PHMSA expects that 10 percent of the affected community (approximately 181 operators) will be subject to the various other recordkeeping requirements. As a result, PHMSA expects this information collection to result in 2,383 responses and 77,320 burden hours annually.

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The “Amendments to Parts 192 and 195 to Require Valve Installation and Minimum Rupture Detection Standards Final Rule” require operators to notify PHMSA in certain instances regarding their rupture-mitigation valve operations. 49 CFR § 192.634 and 49 CFR § 195.418 require operators who elect to use alternative equivalent technology to notify the Office of Pipeline Safety at least 90 days in advance of use. An operator choosing this option must include a technical and safety evaluation, including design, construction, and operating procedures for the alternative equivalent technology with the notification. PHMSA expects most operators to use standard technology and, as such, estimates this notification requirement will result in approximately 4 responses annually. PHMSA estimates each operator will spend 40 hours annually compiling the necessary components of this notification requirement. Operators must notify PHMSA if a rupture-mitigation valve cannot be made operational within 14 days of installation. Operators must also notify PHMSA if a valve cannot be repaired or replaced within 12 months. PHMSA expects roughly 10 percent of operators to experience these circumstances taking 2 hours to complete the notification requirement. An operator may seek exemption from certain regulatory requirements by notifying PHMSA in certain instances. An operator may plan to leave a rupture-mitigation valve open for more than 30 minutes following a rupture identification if the operator demonstrates to PHMSA, that closing a rupture mitigation valve, or alternative equivalent technology, would be detrimental to public safety. Likewise, for hazardous liquid pipeline segments in a non-HCA area or a non-HCA could-affect segment, an operator may request exemption from certain requirements if it can demonstrate to PHMSA that installing an otherwise-required rupture-mitigation valve, or alternative equivalent technology, would be economically, technically, or operationally infeasible.

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This information collection helps support implementation of statutory provisions applicable to laboratories that conduct testing on human specimens under the Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments of 1988 (CLIA). These requirements are codified in 42 U.S.C. 263a and implementing regulations are found in 42 CFR 493.

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Comprehensive violent crime case information submitted to ViCAP by law enforcement is maintained in the Congressionally mandated respository (ViCAP National Crime Database) and is compared to all other cases in the database to identify potentially related cases.

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NRC Form 664 is used by NRC general licensees to make reports regarding certain generally licensed devices subject to annual registration. The registration program allows NRC to better track general licensees, so that they can be contacted or inspected as necessary, and to make sure that generally licensed devices can be identified even if lost or damaged. Also, the registration program ensures that general licensees are aware of and understand the requirements for the possession, use, and disposal of devices containing byproduct material. Greater awareness helps to ensure that general licensees will comply with the regulatory requirements for proper handling and disposal of generally licensed devices and would reduce the potential for incidents that could result in unnecessary radiation exposure to the public and contamination of property.

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The Internal Revenue Code (IRC) at 26 U.S.C. 5741 requires all manufacturers and importers of tobacco products, processed tobacco, or cigarette papers and tubes, and all export warehouse proprietors to keep records as the Secretary of the Treasury prescribes by regulation, subject to government inspection during business hours. Under that authority, the Alcohol and Tobacco Tax and Trade Bureau (TTB) regulations in 27 CFR part 41 require importers of tobacco products or processed tobacco to maintain the usual and customary records kept during the normal course of business showing the receipt and disposition of imported tobacco products or processed tobacco. TTB uses the collected information to ensure that importers’ activities comply with the IRC and that processed tobacco, which is not taxed, is not diverted to taxable tobacco product manufacturing.

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Part 298 of Title 14 of the Code of Federal Regulations, Exemptions for Air Taxi Registration, establishes a classification of air carriers known as air taxi operators that offer on- demand passenger service. The regulation exempts these small operators from certain provisions of the Federal statute to permit them to obtain economic authority by filing a one-page, front and back, OST Form 4507, Air Taxi Operator Registration, and Amendments under Part 298 of DOT’s Regulations. DOT expects to receive 50 new air taxi registrations and 2000 amended air taxi registrations each year, resulting in 2,050 total respondents. Further, DOT expects filers of new registrations to take 1 hour to complete the form, while it should only take 30 minutes to prepare amendments to the form. Thus, the total annual burden is expected to be 1050 hours. 1. Responding to the collection is mandatory. 2. The entities who must respond are air taxi operators that offer on-demand passenger air service. 3. The collection is a disclosure of information required by 14 CFR Part 298. 4. The collection frequency is determined by changes in the air carrier’s operation. A new form can be filed amending the information previously filed. 5. The information reported includes the name of the air carrier, its mailing address and/or principal place of business, contact information, whether it is an initial or amended filing, type of air service the carrier intends to perform, make and model of aircraft, FAA registration number, passenger seats installed, and whether or not the carrier is a U.S. citizen. 6. The information submitted by the air carrier is received by the DOT/FAA. 7. The purpose of the collection is to determine whether air taxi operations meet the Department’s criteria for an operating authorization under 14 CFR Part 298. It allows small air taxi operators, who generally operate small aircraft, to be relieved of the financial burden of going through the economic fitness process otherwise required by regulation. 8. This is not a revision.

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The Certification of Qualifying State Relief from Disabilities Program — ATF Form 3210.12 is used by a State official to certify to the Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms, and Explosives (ATF) that it has established a qualifying mental health relief from firearms disabilities program that satisfies certain minimum criteria established by the NICS Improvement Amendment Act of 2007 (NIAA), Public Law 110-180.

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The CFTC requests approval of its request to extend the information collections associated with the agency's rules governing Margin Requirements for Uncleared Swaps for Swap Dealers and Major Swap Participants--Cross-Border Application of the Margin Requirements. These collections of information implement section 4s(e) of the Commodity Exchange Act ("CEA"), which mandates that the Commission adopt rules establishing margin requirements for uncleared swaps of swap dealers ("SDs") and major swap participants ("MSPs") that do not have a Prudential Regulator (collectively, "Covered Swap Entities" or "CSEs"), and section 2(i) of the CEA, which provides the Commission with express authority over swaps activities in cross-border transactions when certain conditions are met. The Commission uses the information collected to determine whether the foreign jurisdiction's margin rules for uncleared swaps are comparable to the Commission's corresponding margin requirements. Covered Swap Entities or CSEs that are eligible for substituted compliance under the Proposed Rule, as well as foreign regulatory agencies that have direct supervisory authority to administer the foreign jurisdiction's margin requirements for uncleared swaps in the requested foreign jurisdiction, may make a request for a comparability determination. Also, two information collections included in the final rule require CSEs to have policies and procedures ensuring that they are in compliance with all of the requirements of the special provisions for non-netting jurisdictions and non-segregation provisions, respectively, and to maintain books and records properly documenting that all of the requirements of the special provisions for non-netting jurisdictions and non-segregation jurisdictions, respectively, are satisfied. These two collections are necessary as a means for the Commission to be able to determine that CSEs relying on the non-netting jurisdictions and non-segregation provisions are entitled to do so and are complying with the special provisions’ requirements.